厦门大学2005年招收攻读硕士学位研究生
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招 生 专 业  英语语言文学        考 试 课 程 阅读及英美文学、语言学417
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Write down your answers to all the questions in this test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.

Part One  Reading Comprehension  70 points
Directions: Each passage is followed by questions based on its content. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Passage 1
The recent change to all-volunteer armed forces in the United States will eventually produce a gradual increase in the proportion of women in the armed forces and in the variety of women’s assignments, but probably not the dramatic gains for women that might have been expected. This is so even though the armed forces operate in an ethos of institutional change oriented toward occupational equality and under the federal sanction of equal pay for equal work. The difficulty is that women are unlikely to be trained for any direct combat operations. A significant portion of the larger society remains uncomfortable as yet with extending equality in this direction. Therefore, for women in the military, the search for equality will still be based on functional equivalence, not identity or even similarity of task. Opportunities seem certain to arise. The growing emphasis on deterrence is bound to offer increasing scope for women to become involved in novel types of non-combat military assignments.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) present an overview of the different types of assignments available to women in the new United States all-volunteer armed forces
  (B) present a reasoned prognosis of the status of women in the new United States all-volunteer armed forces
  (C) present the new United States all-volunteer armed forces as a model case of equal employment policies in action
  (D) analyze the use of functional equivalence as a substitute for occupational equality in the new United States all-volunteer armed forces
2. According to the passage, despite the United States armed forces’ commitment to occupational equality for women in the military, certain other factors preclude women’s
(A)  receiving equal pay for equal work
(B)    having access to positions of responsibility at most levels
(C)    drawing assignments from a wider range of assignments than before
(D)  benefiting from opportunities arising from new non-combat functions
3. The passage implies that which of the following is a factor conducive to a more equitable representation of women in the United States armed forces than has existed in the past?
  (A) The all-volunteer character of the present armed forces
  (B) The past service records of women who had assignments functionally equivalent to men’s assignments
  (C) The level of awareness on the part of the larger society of military issues
  (D) A decline in the proportion of deterrence oriented non-combat assignments
4. The “dramatic gains for women” (line 2) and the attitude, as described in lines 11-12, of a “significant portion of the larger society” are logically related to each other inasmuch as the author puts forward the latter as
  (A) a public response to achievement of the former
  (B) the major reason for absence of the former
  (C) a precondition for any prospect of achieving the former
  (D) a catalyst for a further extension of the former

Passage 2
Of the thousands of specimens of meteorites found on Earth and known to science, only about 100 are igneous; that is, they have undergone melting by volcanic action at some time since the planets were first formed. These igneous meteorites are known as achondrites because they lack    chondrules—small stony spherules found in the thousands of meteorites (called “chondrites”) composed primarily of unaltered minerals
  that condensed from dust and gas at the origin of the solar system. Achondrites are the only known samples of volcanic rocks originating outside the Earth-Moon system. Most are thought to have been dislodged by interbody impact from asteroids, with diameters of from 10 to 500 kilometers, in solar orbit between Mars and Jupiter.
            Shergottites, the name given to three anomalous achondrites so far discovered on Earth, present scientists with a genuine enigma. Shergottites crystallized from molten rock less than 1.1 billion years ago (some 3.5 billion years later than typical achondrites) and were presumably ejected into space when an object impacted on a body similar in chemical composition to Earth.
        While most meteorites appear to derive from comparatively small bodies, shergottites exhibit properties that indicate that their source was a large planet, conceivably Mars. In order to account for such an unlikely source, some unusual factor must be invoked, because the impact needed to accelerate a fragment of rock to escape the gravitational field of a body even as small as the Moon is so great that no meteorites of lunar origin have been discovered.
          While some scientists speculate that shergottites derive from Io (a volcanically active moon of Jupiter), recent measurements suggest that since Io’s surface is rich in sulfur and sodium, the chemical composition of its volcanic products would probably be unlike that of the shergottites. Moreover, any fragments dislodged from Io by interbody impact would be unlikely to escape the gravitational pull of Jupiter.
              The only other logical source of shergottites is Mars. Space-probe photographs indicate the existence of giant volcanoes on the Martian surface. From the small number of impact craters that appear on Martian lava flows, one can estimate that the planet was volcanically active as recently as a half-billion years ago—and may be active today. The great objection to the Martian origin of shergottites is the absence of lunar meteorites on Earth. An impact capable of ejecting a fragment of the Martian surface into an Earth-intersecting orbit is even less probable than such an event on the Moon, in view of the Moon’s smaller size and closer proximity to Earth. A recent study suggests, however, that permafrost ices below the surface of Mars may have altered the effects of impact on it. If the ices had been rapidly vaporized by an impacting object, the expanding gases might have helped the ejected fragments reach escape velocity. Finally, analyses performed by space probes show a
  remarkable chemical similarity between Martian soil and the shergottites.

5. The passage implies which of the following about shergottites?
  I. They are products of volcanic activity.
  II. They derive from a planet larger than Earth.
III. They come from a planetary body with a chemical composition similar to that of Io.
  (A) I only       
(B) II only     
(C) I and II only
  (D) II and III only   
6. According to the passage, a meteorite discovered on Earth is unlikely to have come from a large planet for which of the following reasons?
  (A) There are fewer large planets in the solar system than there are asteroids.
  (B) Most large planets have been volcanically inactive for more than a billion years.
  (C) The gravitational pull of a large planet would probably prohibit fragments from escaping its orbit.
  (D) There are no chondrites occurring naturally on Earth and probably none on other large planets.
7. The passage suggests that the age of shergottites is probably
  (A) still entirely undetermined
  (B) less than that of most other achondrites
  (C) about 3.5 billion years
  (D) the same as that of typical achondrites
8. According to the passage, the presence of chondrules in a meteorite indicates that the meteorite
  (A) has probably come from Mars
  (B) is older than the solar system itself
  (C) has not been melted since the solar system formed
  (D) is certainly less than 4 billion years old
9. The passage provides information to answer which of the following questions?
  (A) What is the precise age of the solar system?
  (B) How did shergottites get their name?
  (C) What are the chemical properties shared by shergottites and Martian soils?
  (D) What is a major feature of the Martian surface?
10. It can be inferred from the passage that each of the following is a consideration in determining whether a particular planet is a possible source of shergottites that have been discovered on Earth EXCEPT the
  (A) planet’s size               
  (B) planet’s distance from Earth
  (C) strength of the planet’s field of gravity
  (D) proximity of the planet to its moons
27. It can be inferred from the passage that most mete-
  orites found on Earth contain which of the following?
  (A) Crystals      (B) Chondrules          (C) Metals              (D) Sodium

Passage 3
The transplantation of organs from one individual to another normally involves two major problems: organ rejection is likely unless the transplantation antigens of both individuals are nearly identical, and (2) the introduction of any unmatched transplantation antigens induces the development by the recipient of donor-specific lymphocytes that will produce violent rejection of further transplantations from that donor. However, we have found that among many strains of rats these “normal” rules of transplantation are not obeyed by liver transplants. Not only are liver transplants never rejected, but they even induce a state of donor-specific unresponsiveness in which subsequent transplants of other organs, such as skin, from that donor are accepted permanently. Our hypothesis is that (1) many strains of rats simply cannot mount a sufficiently vigorous destructive immune-response (using lymphocytes) to outstrip the liver’s relatively great capacity to protect itself from immune-response damage and that (2) the systemic unresponsiveness observed is due to concentration of the recipient’s donor-specific lymphocytes at the site of the liver transplant.

12. The primary purpose of the passage is to treat the accepted generalizations about organ transplantation in which of the following ways?
  (A) Explicate their main features                            (B) Suggest an alternative to them
  (C) Examine their virtues and limitations              (D) Criticize the major evidence used to support them
13. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that an important difference among strains of rats is the
  (A) size of their livers                                            (B) constitution of their skin
  (C) strength of their immune-response reactions  (D) sensitivity of their antigens
14. According to the hypothesis of the author, after a successful liver transplant, the reason that rats do not reject further transplants of other organs from the same donor is that the
  (A) transplantation antigens of the donor and the recipient become matched
  (B) lymphocytes of the recipient are weakened by the activity of the transplanted liver
  (C) subsequently transplanted organ is able to repair the damage caused by the recipient’s immune-response reaction
  (D) transplanted liver continues to be the primary locus for the recipient’s immune-response reaction
15. Which of the following new findings about strains of rats that do not normally reject liver transplants if true, would support the authors’ hypothesis?
  I. Stomach transplants are accepted by the recipients in all cases.
  II. Increasing the strength of the recipient’s immune-response reaction can induce liver-transplant rejection.
III. Organs from any other donor can be transplanted without rejection after liver transplantation.
IV. Preventing lymphocytes from being concentrated at the liver transplant produces acceptance of skin transplants.
  (A) II only                        (B) I and III only
  (C) II and IV only              (D) I, II, and III only

Passage 4
            Practically speaking, the artistic maturing of the cinema was the single-handed achievement of David W. Griffith (1875-1948). Before Griffith, photography in dramatic films consisted of little more than placing the actors before a stationary camera and showing them in full length as they would have appeared on stage. From the beginning of his career as a director, however, Griffith, because of his love of Victorian painting, employed composition. He conceived of the camera image as having a foreground and a rear ground, as well as the middle distance preferred by most directors. By 1910 he was using close-ups to reveal significant details of the scene or of the acting and extreme long shots to achieve a sense of spectacle and distance. His appreciation of the camera’s possibilities produced novel dramatic effects. By splitting an event into fragments and recording each from the most suitable camera position, he could significantly vary the emphasis from camera shot to camera shot.
            Griffith also achieved dramatic effects by means of creative editing. By juxtaposing images and varying the speed and rhythm of their presentation, he could control the dramatic intensity of the events as the story progressed. Despite the reluctance of his producers, who feared that the public would not be able to follow a plot that was made up of such juxtaposed images, Griffith persisted, and experimented as well with other elements of cinematic syntax that have become standard ever since. These included the flashback, permitting broad psychological and emotional exploration as well as narrative that was not chronological, and the crosscut between two parallel actions to heighten suspense and excitement. In thus exploiting fully the possibilities of editing, Griffith transposed devices of the Victorian novel to film and gave film mastery of time as well as space.
          Besides developing the cinema’s language, Griffith immensely broadened its range and treatment of subjects. His early output was remarkably eclectic: it included not only the standard comedies, melodramas, westerns, and thrillers, but also such novelties as adaptations from Browning and Tennyson, and treatments of social issues. As his successes mounted, his ambitions grew, and with them the whole of American cinema. When he remade Enoch Arden in 1911, he insisted that a subject of such importance could not be treated in the then conventional length of one reel. Griffith’s introduction of the American-made multireel picture began an immense revolution. Two years later, Judith of Bethulia, an elaborate historic philosophical spectacle, reached the unprecedented length of four reels, or one hour’s running time. From our contemporary viewpoint, the pretensions of this film may seem a trifle ludicrous, but at the time it provoked endless debate and discussion and gave a new intellectual respectability to the cinema.

16. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) discuss the importance of Griffith to the development of the cinema
  (B) describe the impact on cinema of the flashback and other editing innovations
  (C) deplore the state of American cinema before the advent of Griffith
  (D) analyze the changes in the cinema wrought by the introduction of the multireel film
17. The author suggests that Griffith’s film innovations
  had a direct effect on all of the following EXCEPT
  (A) film editing                  (B) camera work          (C) scene composing            (D) sound editing
18. It can be inferred from the passage that before 1910
  the normal running time of a film was
  (A) 15 minutes or less                          (B) between 15 and 30 minutes
  (C) between 30 and 45 minutes          (D) between 45 minutes and 1 hour
19. The author asserts that Griffith introduced all of the following into American cinema EXCEPT
  (A) consideration of social issues                          (B) adaptations from Tennyson
  (C) the flashback and other editing techniques      (D) dramatic plots suggested by Victorian theater
20. The author suggests that Griffith’s contributions to
  the cinema had which of the following results?
      I. Literary works, especially Victorian novels, became popular sources for film subjects.
        II. Audience appreciation of other film directors’ experimentations with cinematic syntax was increased.
III. Many of the artistic limitations thought to be inherent in filmmaking were shown to be really nonexistent.
(A) II only              (B) III only                  (C) I and II only          (D) II and III only
21. It can be inferred from the passage that Griffith would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements?
  (A) The good director will attempt to explore new ideas as quickly as possible.
  (B) The most important element contributing to a film’s success is the ability of the actors.
  (C) The camera must be considered an integral and active element in the creation of a film.
  (D) The cinema should emphasize serious and sober examinations of fundamental human problems.
22. The author’s attitude toward photography in the cinema before Griffith can best be described as
  (A) sympathetic                (B) nostalgic                (C) amused                            (D) condescending

Passage 5
Historically, a cornerstone of classical empiricism has been the notion that every true generalization must be confirmable by specific observations. In classical empiricism, the truth of “All balls are red,” for example, is assessed by inspecting balls; any observation of a non red ball refutes unequivocally the proposed generalization. For W.V.O. Quine, however, this constitutes an overly “narrow” conception of empiricism. “All balls are red,” he maintains, forms one strand within an entire web of statements (our knowledge); individual observations can be referred only to this web as a whole. As new observations are collected, he explains, they must be integrated into the web. Problems occur only if a contradiction develops between a new observation, say, “That ball is blue,” and the preexisting statements. In that case, he argues, any statement or combination of statements (not merely the “offending” generalization, as in classical empiricism) can be altered to achieve the fundamental requirement, a system free of contradictions, even if, in some cases, the alteration consists of labeling the new observation a “hallucination.”

23. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with presenting
  (A) criticisms of Quine’s views on the proper conceptualization of empiricism
  (B) evidence to support Quine’s claims about the problems inherent in classical empiricism
  (C) an account of Quine’s counterproposal to one of the traditional assumptions of classical empiricism
  (D) an overview of classical empiricism and its contributions to Quine’s alternate under-standing of empiricism
24. According to Quine’s conception of empiricism, if a new observation were to contradict some statement already within our system of knowledge, which of the following would be true? 
  (A) The new observation would be rejected as untrue.
  (B) Both the observation and the statement in our system that it contradicted would be discarded.
  (C) New observations would be added to our web of statements in order to expand our system of knowledge.
  (D) The observation or some part of our web of statements would need to be adjusted to resolve the contradiction.
25. As described in the passage, Quine’s specific argument against classical empiricism would be most strengthened if he did which of the following?
  (A) Provided evidence that many observations are actually hallucinations.
  (B) Explained why new observations often invalidate preexisting generalizations.
  (C) Challenged the mechanism by which specific generalizations are derived from collections of particular observations.
  (D) Mentioned other critics of classical empiricism and the substance of their approaches.
26. It can be inferred from the passage that Quine considers classical empiricism to be “overly ‘narrow’ ” (lines 3-4) for which of the following reasons?
      I. Classical empiricism requires that our system of generalizations be free of contradictions.
      II. Classical empiricism demands that in the case of a contradiction between an individual observation and a generalization, the generalization must be abandoned.
          III. Classical empiricism asserts that every observation will either confirm an existing generalization or initiate a new generalization.
(A) II only          (B) I and II only          (C) I and III only                (D) I, II, and III

Passage 6
                      Until recently astronomers have been puzzled by the fate of red giant and supergiant stars. When the core of a giant star whose mass surpasses 1.4 times the present mass of our Sun (M⊙) exhausts its nuclear fuel, it is unable to support its own weight and collapses into a tiny neutron star. The gravitational energy released during this implosion of the core blows off the remainder of the star in a gigantic explosion, or a supernova. Since around 50 percent of all stars are believed to begin their lives with masses greater than 1.4M⊙, we might expect that one out of every two stars would die as a supernova. But in fact, only one star in thirty dies such a violent death. The rest expire much more peacefully as planetary nebulas. Apparently most massive stars manage to lose sufficient material that their masses drop below the critical value of 1.4 M⊙before they exhaust their nuclear fuel.
Evidence supporting this view comes from observations of IRC+10216, a pulsating giant star located 700 light-years away from Earth. A huge rate of mass loss (1 M⊙ every 10,000 years) has been deduced from infrared observations of ammonia (NH3) molecules located in the circumstellar cloud around IRC+10216. Recent microwave observations of carbon monoxide (CO) molecules indicate a similar rate of mass loss and demonstrate that the escaping material extends out-ward from the star for a distance of at least one light-year. Because we know the size of the cloud around IRC+10216 and can use our observations of either NH3 or CO to measure the outflow velocity, we can calculate an age for the circumstellar cloud. IRC+10216 has apparently expelled, in the form of molecules and dust grains, a mass equal to that of our entire Sun within the past ten thousand years. This implies that some stars can shed huge amounts of matter very quickly and thus may never expire as supernovas. Theoretical models as well as statistics on supernovas and planetary nebulas suggest that stars that begin their lives with masses around 6 M⊙ shed sufficient material to drop below the critical value of 1.4M⊙. IRC+10216, for example, should do this in a mere 50,000 years from its birth, only an instant in the life of a star.
                      But what place does IRC+10216 have in stellar evolution? Astronomers suggest that stars like IRC+10216 are actually “protoplanetary nebulas” –old giant stars whose dense cores have almost but not quite rid themselves of the fluffy envelopes of gas around them. Once the star has lost the entire envelope, its exposed core becomes the central star of the planetary nebula and heats and ionizes the last vestiges of the envelope as it flows away into space. This configuration is a full-fledged planetary nebula, long familiar to optical astronomers.

27. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) offer a method of calculating the age of circum-stellar clouds
  (B) describe the conditions that result in a star’s expiring as a supernova
  (C) discuss new evidence concerning the composition of planetary nebulas
  (D) explain why fewer stars than predicted expire as supernovas
28. The passage implies that at the beginning
  of the life of IRC+10216, its mass was approximately
  (A) 7.0 M⊙  (B) 6.0 M⊙  (C) 5.0 M⊙      (D) 1.4 M⊙ 
29. The view to which line 18 refers serves to
  (A) reconcile seemingly contradictory facts
  (B) undermine a previously held theory
  (C) take into account data previously held to be insignificant
  (D) resolve a controversy
30. It can be inferred from the passage that the author assumes which of the following in the discussion of the rate at which IRC+10216 loses mass?
  (A) The circumstellar cloud surrounding IRC+10216 consists only of CO and NH3 molecules.
  (B) The circumstellar cloud surrounding IRC+10216 consists of material expelled from that star.
  (C) The age of a star is equal to that of its circumstellar cloud.
  (D) The rate at which IRC+10216 loses mass varies significantly from year to year.
31. According to information provided by the passage, which of the following stars would astronomers most likely describe as a planetary nebula?
(A) A star that began its life with a mass of 5.5 M⊙, has exhausted its nuclear fuel, andhas a core that is visible to astronomers
(B) A star that began its life with a mass of 6 M⊙, lost mass at a rate of 1 M⊙ per 10,000 years, and exhausted its nuclear fuel in 40,000 years
  (C) A star that has exhausted its nuclear fuel, has a mass of 1.2 M⊙, and is surrounded by a circumstellar cloud that obscures its core from view
  (D) A star that began its life with a mass greater than 6 M⊙, has just recently exhausted its nuclear fuel, and is in the process of releasing massive amounts of gravitational energy
32. Which of the following statements would be most likely to follow the last sentence of the passage?
(A) Supernovas are not necessarily the most spectacular events that astronomers have occasion to observe.
(B) Apparently, stars that have a mass of greater than 6 M⊙ are somewhat rare.
(C)Recent studies of CO and NH3 in the circumstellar clouds of stars similar to IRC+10216 have led astronomers to believe that the formation of planetary nebulas precedes the development of supernovas.
(D) Astronomers have yet to develop a consistently accurate method for measuring the rate at which a star exhausts its nuclear fuel.
33. Which of the following titles best summarizes the content of the passage?
  (A) New Methods of Calculating the Age of Circumstellar Clouds
  (B) New Evidence Concerning the Composition of Planetary Nebulas
  (C) Protoplanetary Neula: A Rarely Observed Phenomenon
  (D) Planetary Nebulas: An Enigma to Astronomers

Passage 7
              Noses have it pretty hard. Boxers fatten them. Doctors rearrange them. People make jokes about their unflattering characteristics. Worst of all, when it comes to smell, no one really understands them.
              Despite the nose’s conspicuous presence, its workings are subtle. Smell, or olfaction is a chemosense, relying on specialized interactions between chemicals and nerve endings. When a rose, for example, is sniffed, odor molecules are carried by the rising airstream to the top of the nasal cavity, just behind the bridge of the nose, where the tips of the tens of millions of olfactory nerve cells are clustered in the mucous lining. The molecules somehow trigger the nerve endings, which carry the message to the olfactory lobes of the brain. Because smell information then travels to other regions of the brain, the scent of a rose can elicit not only a pleasurable sensation but emotions and memories as well.
              Though just how odors stimulate the nerves is unknown, scientists do know that our sense of smell is surprisingly keen, capable of distinguishing up to tens of thousands of chemical odors. The laboratory task of isolating the components of an odor is far from simple. Tobacco smoke, for example, is made up of several thousand different chemicals. Moreover, smell researchers must grapple with the problem of what to call the different odors that the nose detects. People generally refer to smells by their sources of associations. Descriptions such as “like a wet dog” or “like my elementary school” may convey perceptions but are vastly inadequate for labeling the chemistry involved.
              To further complicate research, olfaction is connected to other sensations. Besides olfactory nerves, the nasal cavity contains pain-sensitive nerves that perceive sensations such as the kick in ammonia of the burning in chili peppers. Smell also interwines with taste to create flavor. A coffee drinker holding his nose while sipping would taste only the bitter in his brew, for taste receptors generally appear limited to bitter, salty, sour and sweet. The sense of smell is ten thousand times more sensitive than taste and makes subtle distinctions among lemon, chocolate, and many more flavors.
              So how does the nose manage this sophisticated discrimination? Lake of evidence hasn’t kept scientists from speculating. One idea is that every odor molecule vibrates at its own frequency, creating patterns of disturbance in the air similar to the wave patterns produced by sound. According to this theory, the nerves act as receivers for the unique vibrations of every odor molecule. The scheme requires no direct contact between the molecule and the nerve cell.
                Another suggestion is that primary odors, equivalent to the primary color s of vision underlie all smells and are detected by receptor sites on the olfactory nerves. Different combinations of about thirty basic smells, with labels such as malty, minty, and musky, could form an infinite number of odors.
                Other scientists think that each smell is its own primary smell. They believe the olfactory nerve endings have specific receptor proteins that bind to each of the chemicals people can sense. This theory, however, calls for thousands of different proteins – none of which has been found.
                “The science of smell is so empirical, ”says Robert Gesteland, a neurobiologist at Northwestern University, “there’s no predictive base for experiments.” Unlike the senses of sight, touch, and hearing, olfaction studies have attracted only a small share of scientific interest. That may change. Researchers hope that unraveling the mystery of smell and taste disorders that affect two million Americans. And in the future, with enough known about smell, it might be possible to endow strange, unappealing but nutritious foods with more familiar odors, perhaps expanding the world’s food supply. For the moment, however, what the nose knows it isn’t revealing.

34. We may conclude from this passage that
(A) our sense of smell is as important as any of our other senses   
(B) each smell is its primary smell             
(C) olfactory study has become a major research area   
(D) there is much more to be learned about the nose
35. According to the passage the only statement which is not true is
(A) doctors use smell research to better understand taste disorders
(B) significant progress has been made in separating the various proteins in the nerve endings
(C) smell researchers have difficulty in labeling different odors
(D) our sense of taste is not nearly as acute as our sense of smell
36. Which of the following sentences from the passage illustrates the need for further research?
(A) Smell also interwines with taste to create flavor.
(B) The molecules somehow trigger the nerve endings, which carry the message to the olfactory lobes of the brain.
(C) The science of smell is so empirical, there’s no predictive base for experiments
(D) Smell, or olfaction, is a chemosense, relying on specialized interactions between chemicals and nerve endings
37. In attempting to analyze the intricacies of smell discrimination, some scientists have suggested
I. that odor molecules work in the same way that sound waves do
II. that primary odors, which are inherent in all smells, are communicated to receptor sites on the olfactory nerves
III. that recognition takes place as the molecule stimulates the nerve cell
(A) II only              (B) I and II only          (C) I and III only                (D) I, II, and III
38. The author attempts to lighten this serious biological report by means of
(A) the incongruity of widespread smell research
(B) similes such as “like a wet dog”
(C) the opening and closing statements
(D) the confession of our basic ignorance
39. The comparison of a smell to a person’s elementary school was made in order to
(A) illustrate a unique perception
(B) show how imagery may be employed in a lab situation
(C) point out the uselessness of such a description to scientists
(D) personalize a complicated topic
(E) maintain the reader’s interest
40. According to the passage, we can find massive quantities of olfactory nerve cells
(A) in every chemosense              (B) on the brain lobes
  (C) behind the bridge of the nose        (D) in special taste receptors
42. The broadest example of a major problem facing smell researchers is contained with
(A) the reference to tabbacco smoke                      (B) the reference to the rose
  (C) the coffee drinker’s experience                (D) Robert Gesteland’s statement

Passage 8
In recommending to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the President of the university said: “There were no student demonstrations over the previous increase of $300 last year and $200 the year before.”

42. If the President’s statement is accurate, which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given?
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over the new tuition increases.
(A) I only                (B) II only          (C) I or II, but not both                (D) Neither I, II, and III

Passage 9
A meadow in springtime is beautiful, even if no one there to appreciate it.
43. The statement above would be a logical rebuttal to which of the following claims?
(A) People will see only what they want to see.
(B) Beauty is only skin deep.
(C) There’s no accounting for taste.
(D) Beauty exists only in the eye of the beholder.

Passage 10
“I have considered the structure of all Volant animals, and find the folding continuity of the bat’s wings most easily accommodated to the human form. Upon this model I shall begin my task tomorrow, and in a year expect to tower into the air beyond the malice or pursuit of man. But I will work only this condition, that the art shall not be divulged, and that you shall not require me to make wings for any but ourselves. ”
“Why,” said Rasselas, “should you envy others so great an advantage? All skill ought to be exerted for universal good; every man has owed much to others, and ought to repay the kindness that he has received.”
“If men were all virtuous,” returned the artist, “I should with great alacrity teach them all to fly. But what would be the security of the good, if the bad could at pleasure invade them from the sky? Against an army sailing might though the clouds neither wall, nor mountains, nor seas, could afford any security. A flight of northern savages might hover in the wind, and light at once with irresistible violence upon the capital of a fruitful region that was descent of some of the naked nations that swarm on the coast of the southern sea.”

44. The person whom Rasselas is speaking to is
  (A) a tailor  (B) a gamber  (C) a biologist      (D) an artist 
45. The attitude of the persion giving his point of view is one of
  (A) optimism  (B)sarcasm  (C) distrust                  (D)innocence 
46. In this selection, the author is employing the literary device of
  (A) onomatopoeia  (B) symbolism  (C) irony                  (D) alliteration 

Passage 11
In country X, the Conservative, Democratic and Justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. To restore stability, an agreement is reached to rotate the tip offices – President, Prime Minister, and Army Chief of Staff-among the parties, so that each party controls one and only one Office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed equally of members of his or her chief’s party and members of the third party.

47. When the Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true?
(A) Some of the staff members within that Office are Justice Party members
(B) Some of the staff members within that Office are Democratic Party members
(C) Two of the deputies within that Office are Justice Party members
(D) Two of the deputies within that Office are Conservative Party members
48. When the Democratic Party holds the Presidency, the staffs of the Prime Minister’s deputies are composed of
I. one-fourth of Democratic Party members
II. one-half of Justice Party members, one-fourth of Conservative Party members
III. one-half of Conservative Party members, one-fourth of Justice Party members
(A) I only                (B) I and II only          (C) II or III, but not both            (D) I and II or I and III
49. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated?
(A) More than half of the staff within a given Office belonging to a single party.
(B) Half the staff members within a given Office belonging to a single party.
(C) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(D) Half the total number of staff members in all three Offices belonging to a single party.
50. The Office of the Army Chief of Staff passes from the Conservatives to the Justice Party. Which of the following must be fired?
(A) The Democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to the Justice Party
(B) Justice Party deputy and all of his or her staff members
(C) Justice Party deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to the Conservative Party.
(D) Conservative Party deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to the Conservative Party.

Passage 12
By 1950, the results of attempts to relate brain processes to mental experience appeared rather discouraging. Such variations in size, shape, chemistry, conduction speed, excitation threshold, and the like as had been demonstrated in nerve cells remained negligible in significance for any possible correlation with the manifold dimensions of mental experience.
Near the turn of the century, it had been suggested by Hering that different modes of sensation, such as pain, taste, and color, might be correlated with the discharge of specific kinds of nervous energy. However, subsequently developed methods of recording and analyzing nerve potentials failed to reveal any such qualitative diversity. It was possible to demonstrate by other methods refined structural differences among neuron types; however, proof was lacking that the quality of the impulse or its condition was influenced by these differences, which seemed instead to influence the developmental patterning of the neural circuits. Although qualitative variance among nerve energies was never rigidly disproved, the doctrine was generally abandoned in favor of the opposing view, namely, that nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous in quality and are transmitted as “common currency” throughout the nervous system. According to this theory, it is not the quality of the sensory nerve impulses that determines the diverse conscious sensations they produce, but rather the different areas of the brain into which they discharge, and there is some evidence for this view. In one experiment, when an electric stimulus was applied to a given sensory field of the cerebral cortex of a conscious human subject, it produced a sensation of the appropriate modality for that particular locus, that is, a visual sensation from the visual cortex, an auditory sensation from the auditory cortex, and so on. Other experiments revealed slight variations in the size, number, arrangement, and interconnection of the nerve cells, but as far as psychoneural correlations were concerned, the obvious similarities of these sensory fields to each other seemed much more remarkable than any of the minute differences.
However, cortical locus, in itself, turned out to have little explanatory value. Studies showed that sensations as diverse as those of red, black, green, and white, or touch, cold, warmth, movement, pain, posture, and pressure apparently may arise through activation of the same cortical areas. What seemed to remain was some kind of differential patterning effects in the brain excitation: it is the difference in the central distribution of impulses that counts. In short, brain theory suggested a correlation between mental experience and the activity of relatively homogeneous nerve-cell units conducting essentially homogeneous impulses through homogeneous cerebral tissue. To match the multiple dimensions of mental experience psychologists could only point to a limitless variation in the spatiotemporal patterning of nerve impulses.

51. The author suggests that, by 1950, attempts to correlate mental experience with brain processes would probably have been viewed with
  (A) indignation                  (B) impatience              (C) pessimism            (D) indifference 
52. The author mentions “common currency” in line 26 primarily in order to emphasize the
  (A) lack of differentiation among nerve impulses in human beings
  (B) similarity of the sensations that all human beings experience
  (C) similarities in the views of scientists who have studied the human nervous system
  (D) recurrent questioning by scientists of an accepted explanation about the nervous system
53. The description in lines 32-38 of an experiment in which electric stimuli were applied to different sensory fields of the cerebral cortex tends to support the theory that
  (A) the simple presence of different cortical areas cannot account for the diversity of mental experience
  (B) variation in spatiotemporal patterning of nerve impulses correlates with variation in subjective experience
  (C) nerve impulses are essentially homogeneous and are relatively unaffected as they travel through the nervous system
  (D) the mental experiences produced by sensory nerve impulses are determined by the cortical area activated
54. According to the passage, some evidence exists that the area of the cortex activated by a sensory stimulus determines which of the following?
  I. The nature of the nerve impulse                    II. The modality of the sensory experience
III. Qualitative differences within a modality
  (A) II only        (B) III only      (C) I and II only      (D) II and III only     
55. The passage can most accurately be described as a
  discussion concerning historical views of the
  (A) anatomy of the brain                    (B) manner in which nerve impulses are conducted
  (C) mechanics of sense perception                (D) physiological correlates of mental experience
56. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s opinion of the suggestion that different areas of the brain determine perceptions produced by sensory nerve impulses?
  (A) It is a plausible explanation, but it has not been completely proved.
  (B) It is the best explanation of brain processes currently available.
  (C) It is disproved by the fact that the various areas of the brain are physiologically very similar.
  (D) There is some evidence to support it, but it fails to explain the diversity of mental experience.
  (E) There is experimental evidence that confirms its correctness.
57. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following exhibit the LEAST qualitative variation?
  (A) Nerve cells                  (B) Nerve impulses              (C) Cortical areas        (D) Spatial patterns of nerve impulses

Passage 14
At the end of the Second World War the number of women in their childbearing years was at record low. Yet for almost twenty years they produced a record high number of children. In 1957, there was an average of 3.72 children per family. Now the postwar babies are producing a record low number of babies. In 1983 the average number of children per family was about 1.79—two children fewer than the 1957 rate and lower even than the 2.11 rate that a population needs to replace itself.

58. It can properly inferred from the passage that
  (A) for the birth rate to be high, there must be a relatively large number of women in their childbearing years.
  (B) the most significant factor influencing the birth rate is whether the country is engaged in a war
  (C) unless there are extraordinary circumstances, the birth rate will not dip below the level at which a population replaces itself
  (D) the birth rate is not directly proportional to the number of women in their childbearing years.

Passage 15
A study of illusioinistic painting inevitably begins with the Greek painter Zeuxis. In an early work, which is the basis for his fame, he painted a bowl of grapes that was so lifelike that birds pecked at the fruit. In an attempt to expand his achievement to encompass human figures, he painted a boy carrying a bunch of grapes. When birds immediately came to peck at the fruit, Zeuxis judged that he had failed.
59. Zeuxis’s judgment that he had failed in his later work was based on an assumption. Which of the following can have served as the assumption?
  (A) People are more easily fooled by illusionistic techniques than are the birds
  (B) The use of illusionistic techniques in painting had become commonplace by the time Zeuxis completed his later work.
  (C) The grapes in the later painting were even more realistic than the ones in the earlier work.
  (D) Birds are less likely to peck at fruit when they see that a human being is present.

Passage 16
The best argument for the tenure system that protects professional employment in universities is that it allows veteran faculty to hire people smarter than they are and yet remain secure in the knowledge that unless they themselves are caught in an act of moral turpitude—a concept that in the present climate almost defies definition—the younger faculty cannot turn around and fire them. This is not true in industry.
60. Which of the following assumptions is most likely to have been made by the author of the argument above?
  (A) Industry should follow the example of universities and protect the jobs of managers by instituting a tenure system
  (B) If no tenure system existed, veteran faculty would be reluctant to hire new faculty who might threaten the veteran faculty’s own jobs.
  (C) If a stronger consensus concerning what constitutes moral turpitude existed, the tenure system in universities would be expendable.
  (D) Veteran faculty will usually hire and promote new faculty whose scholarship is more up-to-date their own.

Passage 17
A constitution is a formal statement of the aims and basic rules governing a club. It is regarded as a permanent law to be followed strictly until the group votes (usually by two thirds vote) to amend any provisions. You should think wisely and act cautiously in drawing up a constitution since it is regarded as binding. A long list of amendments indicates that the original constitution was weak. Examine the Constitution of the United States and then notice how few amendments have been added over the course of the years. Although this is a classic example of long-range planning and statesmanship, wisdom and foresight are necessary in drawing up any satisfactory constrictions.
61. A long list of amendments indicates that the original constitution
  (A) was a classic example of long-range planning and statesmanship                            (B) lacked wisdom and foresight
  (C) was not regarded as binding                                                                                      (D)was a satisfactory one
62. An amendment to a constitution usually requires
(A) a unanimous vote                (B) a majority vote                (C) a minority vote      (D) long-range planning and statesmanship
63. The Constitution of the United States with its few amendments\
  (A) is not satisfactory                                                                                                    (B) is weak
  (C) is a typical instance of long-range planning and statesmanship                              (D)was a satisfactory one
64. A constitution is regarded as
(A) temporary                  (B) informal        (C) binding        (D) classic

Passage 18
The need for solar electricity is clear. It is safe, ecologically sound, efficient, continuously available, and it has no moving parts. The basic problem with the use of solar photovoltaic devices is economics, but until recently very little progress had been made toward the development of low-cost photovoltaic devices. The larger part of research funds has been devoted to the study of single-crystal silicon solar cells, despite the evidence that this technique holds little promise. The reason for this pattern is understandable and historical. Crystalline silicon, however, is particularly unsuitable to terrestrial solar cells.
Crystalline silicon solar cells work well and are successfully used in the space program, where cost is not an issue. While single crystal silicon has been proven in extraterrestrial use with efficiencies as high as 18 percent, and other more expensive and scarce materials can have ever higher efficiencies, costs must be reduced by a factor of more that 100 to make them practical for commercial uses. Beside the fact that the starting crystalline silicon is expensive, 95 percent of it is wasted and does not appear in the final device. Recently, there have been some imaginative attempts to make polycrystalline and ribbon silicon which are lower in cost than high-quality single crystals; but to date the efficiencies of these apparently lower-cost materials have been unacceptably small. Moreover, these materials are cheaper only because of the introduction of disordering in crystalline semiconductors, and disorder degrades the efficiency of crystalline solar cells.
This difficulty can be avoided by preparing completely disordered or amorphous materials. Amorphous materials have disordered atomic structure as compared to crystalline materials: that is, they have only short-range order rather that the long-range periodicity of crystals. The advantages of amorphous solar cells are impressive. Whereas crystalline silicon must be made 200 microns thick to absorb a sufficient amount of sunlight for efficient energy conversion, only 1 micron of the proper amorphous materials is necessary. Crystalline silicon solar cells cost in excess of 100 per square foot, but amorphous films can be created at a cost of about 50 cents per square foot.
Although many scientists were aware of the very low cost of amorphous solar cells, they felt that they could never be manufactured with the efficiencies necessary to contribute significantly to the demand for electric power. This was based on a misconception about the feature which determines efficiency. For example, it is not the conductivity of the material in the dark which is relevant, but only the photoconductivity, that is, the conductivity in the presence of sunlight. Already, solar cells with efficiencies well above 6 percent have been developed using amorphous materials, and further research will doubtless find even less costly amorphous materials with higher efficiencies.

65. The author is primarily concerned with _______.
[A] discussing the importance of solar energy
explaining the functioning of solar cells
[C] presenting a history of research on energy sources
[D] describing a possible solution to the problem of the cost of photovoltaic cells
66. According to the passage, which of the following encouraged use of silicon solar cells in the space program?
I. the higher cost of materials such as gallium arsenide
II. the fairly high extraterrestrial efficiency of the cells
III. the relative lack of cost limitations in the space program
(A) I only                (B) II only          (C) I and II only        (D) II and III only
67.In the second paragraph, he author mentions recent attempts to make polycrystalline and ribbon silicon primarily in order to ______.
[A] minimize the importance of recent improvements in silicon solar cells
demonstrate the superiority of amorphous materials over crystalline silicon
[C] explain why silicon solar cells have been the center of research
[D] contrast crystalline silicon with polycrystalline and ribbon silicon
68. Which of the following pairs of terms does the author regard as most nearly synonymous?
  (A)solar and extraterrestrial                                                                (B) photovoltaic devices and solar cells
  (C)crystalline silicon and amorphous materials                                  (D)amorphous materials and higher efficiencies
69. The material in the passage could best be used in an argument for _______.
[A] discontinuing the space program
increased funding for research on amorphous materials
[C] further study of the history of silicon crystals
[D] increased reliance on solar energy
70.The tone of the passage can best be described as _______.
[A] analytical and optimistic
biased and unprofessional
[C] critical and discouraged
[D] hesitating and inconclusive




Part Two Linguistics 30 points (Write down your answers to the questions in this part of the test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.)

1.        Which is more useful in language studies, descriptive linguistics or prescriptive linguistics? Why? 10 points

2.        Please show the difference between tone and intonation. 5 points

3.      How is meaning often analyzed in semantics? 5 points

4.        What is the difference between dialect and language? What is the criterion that is generally used to define a national language? 10 points

Part Three Literature 50 points (Write down your answers to the questions in this part of the test in separate blank answer sheets provided at your test center.)

1.        Write down the names of the authors of the following literary works: (9 points)
A. As I Lay Dying                                  B. Pale Fire
C. Catch-22                                                D. The Hairy Ape
E. The Waste Land                                    F. Julius Caesar
G. The Golden Notebook                          H. The Rime of the Ancient Mariner
I. Canterbury tales
2.        Explain THREE of the following literary terms: (in about 50 words for each) (9 points)
A. postmodernism                                    B. feminism
C. narration                                                D. stream of consciousness
E. monologue                                      F. realism
3.        Describe and make a comment on THREE of the following characters (in about 50 words for each) (12 points)
A. Falstaff (in Henry IV)                                   
B. Heathcliff (in Wuthering Height)
C. Lolita (in Lolita)                                           
D. Bloom (in Ulysses)
E. Scarlett (in Gone with the Wind)   
                           
4.        Answer ONE of the following questions on British Literature (in no less than 100 words) (10 points):
A. Some critics regard Joseph Conrad and Virginia Woolf as impressionist novelists. Do you agree or disagree? Why?                             
B. Why does Thomas Hardy gives his novel Tess of d’Urbervilles a subtitle, A Pure Women?

5.        Answer ONE of the following questions on American Literature (in no less than 100 words) (10 points):
A. What do you know about “The Lost Generation” in the history of American literature?                                 
B. Give some examples of pluralism in modern American literature.